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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

14.06.2025 09:14

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Do you anal play alone?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

You'll usually find your answer there.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

If Jesus spoke against abortion and prioritized family values, how quickly would he be dismissed as a patriarchal figure by modern progressives?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

According to Amy Schumer, John Cena was actually inside of her during the TrainWreck love scene. I thought that was illegal in Hollywood?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?